2. Haber writes in his article (second sentence)
"...the two formulations are indistinguishable as they arise from exactly
the
same Lagrangian...".
Haber determines SM-Lagrangian for a priori distinguishable fermions
(the indistinguishability is to be proven).
He seems to think that having done so, the phenomenological indistinguishablity
is already proven.
I think one still has to check if the Lagrangians thus found, indeed
lead to
phenomenological indistinguishability.