a factor sqrt(2), while agreeing that the exact form is important (otherwise

my mansucript couldn't be wrong because of the used definition).

As I copied the definition from a number of well known textbooks

(quoted in the discussion), there is some serious confusion here.

2. Haber writes in his article (second sentence)

"...the two formulations are indistinguishable as they arise from exactly
the

same Lagrangian...".

Haber determines SM-Lagrangian for a priori distinguishable fermions

(the indistinguishability is to be proven).

He seems to think that having done so, the phenomenological indistinguishablity

is already proven.

I think one still has to check if the Lagrangians thus found, indeed
lead to

phenomenological indistinguishability.