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1. We disagree on the very *definition* of a "Majorana" neutrino by
a factor sqrt(2), while agreeing that the exact form is important (otherwise
my mansucript couldn't be wrong because of the used definition).
As I copied the definition from a number of well known textbooks
(quoted in the discussion), there is some serious confusion here.

2. Haber writes in his article (second sentence)
"...the two formulations are indistinguishable as they arise from exactly the
same Lagrangian...".

Haber determines SM-Lagrangian for a priori distinguishable fermions
(the indistinguishability is to be proven).

He seems to think that having done so, the phenomenological indistinguishablity
is already proven.
I think one still has to check if the Lagrangians thus found, indeed lead to
phenomenological indistinguishability.